Glass Ceiling II

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     The term "glass ceiling" as a discriminatory barrier limiting females from reaching senior management positions was used in the early 1990s, around the time that females first surpassed males in annual university degrees obtained in the United States. Studies of employment in various, such as the 2003 study of employment data in Sweden conducted by Albrecht, Bjӧrklund, and Vroman, have found a consistent gap between men's and women's wages after these are controlled for gender differences in age, education level, education field, sector, industry, and occupation. However, empirical studies as early that of Powell and Butterfield in 1994 have suggested that gender, as a job-irrelevant variable in consideration of promotions to top management positions, may actually work to women's advantage. Whereas the gender gap in pay is strongly supported by data, the glass-ceiling notion itself as a discriminatory force has been harder to account for in empirically proven terms.
     Studies that have been considered by some a partial repudiation of the glass-ceiling theory have indicated that men and women differ in their preferences for competition and that such differences impact economic outcomes. If women are less likely to compete, they are less likely to enter competitive situations and hence likely to win. For example, in a laboratory experiment featuring a non-competitive option and a competitive incentive scheme, men selected the tournament twice as much as did women of equal ability. One explanation is that men are inherently more competitive; another is that the social influences limiting women's presence in executive leadership generally make their impact long before women are near the ceiling.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the partial repudiation of the glass-ceiling theory mentioned in the highlighted text?

Review: Glass Ceiling II


Explanation

This question asks about the "partial repudiation." The gist of that argument is that women prefer to be non-competitive, and that therefore, the lack of women in management positions is not due to discrimination, but preference. We can summarize the partial repudiation as

lower preference for competition -> less presence in senior management

The correct answer will weaken this argument by weakening its link. Choice (A) strengthens the argument, because it suggests that the partial repudiation could explain the gap in wages. (A) is out. Choice (B) weakens the argument: the partial repudiation would expect the pay gap to be higher where competition is higher, so (B) would suggest there is a problem with that theory. (B) might be the answer. Choice (C) is more subtle, so we can come back to it. Choice (D) is out, because it focuses on non-competitive schemes, which are supposedly immaterial to the actual situation we are trying to explain. Choice (E) would strengthen the argument, because it would strengthen the link between opting for competition and getting paid more. Back to (C), which probably has an objective defect. Imagining this situation, we see women and men competing for management positions. The women get paid less, but compete less. They could compete less because they are already getting paid less, or they could be getting paid less because the argument is correct. The impact on the argument is unclear. Therefore, (C) is out.

The correct answer is (B).


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